lukaszthegreat: snip
Additionally I question your thought process about old games not being registered. Why not? Surely 99% are registered.
http://images.mentalfloss.com/sites/default/files/styles/article_640x430/public/zork-screen_5.jpg as example of 35 year old game.
Ok at least you read it ;)
And you are wrong, the US (and not only the US) IS requiring a registration BEFORE you can file a lawsuit, which is NOT against the Berne convention at all. Last recognised by the EU court against MS. They did not want to publish the source code, hence no legal claim and a rather hefty fine.
As in any legal case the courts needs facts, how shall a court decide upon who has the copyright IF there is no proof? THIS overrides ANY other idea! The idea of berne was mainly as you mentioned correctly for physical stuff, like a book, you can open it and see it yourself, the physical proof is there. But SW does not fulfill this requirement at all.
Reminder, ever heard about netscape? You might want to read up on it! It involves this stuff as well.
What companies are claiming to have is one thing, and yes you are so far right that like zork is protected by copyright, but a right which they can not claim in court, unless the prerequisite is fulfilled. Don't forget, ideas are NOT protected by copyright, but that is what a lot of people are confusing!
Only the game, the code itself is protected! Like in a book, the text. And how shall any judge decide upon, if the side claiming violation, never ever bothered about publishing it in the first place? Why do you think re-engineering is not allowed in EULA's? They are trying to mix patent/copyright/whatever themselves, but nobody till now (first one EU against MS and netscape) did pick this concept apart!!!!
So again, please show me, where any company fulfilled the above mentioned requirement of publication? And by the way, it would need to be PUBLIC!!!!! ANOTHER prerequisite even according to Berne.....
To stay with your example: You can not claim copyright for a book which you never published. The burden of proof, that it is your work would be on your site, not the others. Hence the publication requisite. And publishing the game is NOT it. despite them claiming otherwise, that only fulfills patent/trademark whatever, but that is not what the companies are trying to claim, as those right already expired long time ago.
So again, you claim that the companies did register it, still waiting for any publication from you, as you would need to prove it, not me ;)
skeletonbow: The rights transfer to whomever acquires the failed company's assets. I'm not sure if there is a case where that would not happen, but if there is I'm not sure about a grey area like that. If it is just for the purposes of intellectual exercise I would research it online, however if it were a legitimate concern that I was faced with concerning a legal decision I needed to make about such a case I would not consult random opinions online about it, but rather an IP attourney. IP attourney's aren't cheap for actual advice, but you can get some tips from them if you happen to have one in your elbow-rubbing roster. :)
One more thing I should add on such a situation that popped into my mind from a conversation with an attourney in the past, is that copyright rights are the sole ownership of the copyright holder and nobody else has any rights unless the copyright holder grants them
explicitly. This means that rights do not transfer to others via assumptions and implications, they must be stated in writing and individually list each right being granted in the form of a license (ie: our modern EULAs). If a license does not explicitly grant you a specific right, then you do not have that right. Since rights do not transfer implicitly to others ever, even in the death of a company to which their copyrights are not bought or otherwise acquired via another entity via a proper written legal transfer of rights, they do not transfer to anyone else either. I'd have to ask to get an official legal word on it, but past experiences with copyright related issues suggests to me that nobody would be granted rights to use the copyrighted work in question but unless a legal owner could step forward with documentation showing they were the owner, there wouldn't be anyone that would have the legal ownership that could step forward to sue for infringement either.
If that were the case, it would be a legal grey area rather than someone being officially granted a right implicitly somehow. Of course, IANAL so nobody should ever do such a thing without consulting one first.
Again you are claiming that they DO have the legal copyright status, which they don't as just mentioned above. And I have never seen a case where this was really put forward, all sides assumed it, but they never showed it! Exception EU court against MS and netscpae.
And for the rest of your part: cutting it a bit short ;)
If you never really possessed it in the first place, you do not give any permission anyway.
But if you do have a lawyer around, just ask him about what I stated, not sure if he ever thought about it himself. A copyright specialist would know for sure, but not (necessarily) a IP one. Two different aspects of the same thing ;)
And why are we talking about US law, quite simple, as this is the law most companies claim to have the proper copyright from!!!! (not joking!!!!).
And according to Berne this would transfer copyright over to the world, SO LONG the fulfillments are there, which they aren't.
EDIT:
Another thing worth noting, is that online discussions concerning opinions about copyright law often focus on the laws of the United States of America. If the matters in question are solely confined to the USA, that is fine, however often the discussions are more general than that, or involve a specific copyrighted work of which the owners are not within American jurisdiction, and the potential infringers may not be either. In such a situation US laws hold no jurisdiction or meaning.
Wrong, read Berne again!!!!! If the place of origin is placing laws they are applicable as well!!!!!